BOF:
138
A 36
year old male presents with a history of left sided weakness of sudden onset.
He had been previously well but there was a history of a similar occurrence a
year previously when he had been on a diving holiday in the Red Sea. He was
not on any medication, did not smoke or drink and there was no relevant family
history.
On
examination there was a left hemiplegia and left homonymous heminaopia. No
other abnormality detected clinically. CT scan of the brain did not show any
abnormality.
The
neurological deficit resolved within 24 hours.
The
patient underwent extensive investigation and was found to have a patent
foramen ovale but no thrombophilia
In
this patient which of the following lines of management would you follow?
a)
Treat with aspirin
b)
Treat with warfarin
c)
Recommend device closure
d)
Recommend surgical closure
e)
No
further action
