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 Answer EMQ 1

 

   

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EMQ: 1

Haematemesis and Melaena

a)      Mallory-Weiss tear

b)      Duodenal ulcer

c)      Oesophageal varices

d)      Gastric ulcer

e)      Dieulafoy lesion

f)        Gastric carcinoma

g)      Gastritis

h)      Oesophagitis

i)        Aortoenteric fistula

j)        Barrett’s oesophagus

Select the most likely diagnosis from the list above  for the following clinical scenarios:

1) A middle aged, obese female who has been having pruritus for a long time presents with haematemesis and melaena. On examination she has xanthelasma, no signs of chronic hepatocellular failure, moderate splenomegaly

Answer: c) Oesophageal varices

In a middle-aged lady with a history of pruritus in relation to a gastrointestinal problem, one should think of primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC). The fact that she has xanthelasma is further evidence in favour of this. The lack of signs of hepatocellular failure with evidence of portal hypertension (splenomegaly) would also be in favour of this. The most likely complication of PBC that would present with haematemesis and melaena would be bleeding oesophageal varices.

2) A 75-year-old male with a history of anorexia and weight loss presents with haematemesis and melaena.  On examination he looks cachectic and on palpation of the abdomen a hard, craggy liver is felt.

Answer: f) Gastric carcinoma

In an elderly patient with anorexia and weight loss, one should consider gastric cancer. The fact that he is cachectic would be further evidence in favour of this diagnosis. The finding of a hard craggy liver would support this, as this finding would suggest liver metastases.

3) A 24-year-old male who has been on an alcoholic binge presents wit haematemesis following a period of prolonged vomiting. On examination he is inebriated but there is no cardiovascular instability and his haemoglobin is within normal limits.

Answer: a) Mallory-Weiss tear

A young man presenting with vomiting after an alcoholic binge should make one infer that there is no underlying medical condition. Prolonged vomiting followed by haematemesis is suggestive f a Mallory-Weiss tear and the fact that there is no cardiovascular instability nor a drop in haemoglobin should also point to this diagnosis.

4) A 50-year-old sales representative who has been complaining of abdominal discomfort of several months’ duration .the discomfort is relieved by meals but wakes him up form his sleep. He presents with a 3-day history of melaena.

Answer: b) Duodenal ulcer

The history of abdominal discomfort relieved by meals and nocturnal discomfort is suggestive of a duodenal ulcer. The age group and the fact that he has a presumably stressful job are also factors in favour of this diagnosis.

5) A 78-year-old male who has had a repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm presents with melaena, tachycardia a fall in blood pressure and is found to be anaemic.

Answer: i) Aortoenteric fistula

The history of aortic aneurysm repair should make on suspect that the pathology is in relation to this. Melaena with cardiovascular in stability and anaemia should further this suspicion.

Revision Tip

Look up ACES for PACES page 287 for a classification of the causes of haematemesis

 

 

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