Answer BOF 2.36

 

   

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BOF: 2.36

A 60-year-old female presents with pain in her knees. The pain increases after use and is relieved by rest. There are no systemic symptoms.

On examination she is obese. On examination of the hands there are Heberden’s nodes and Bouchard’s nodes. The knees show bony swelling; there is localised joint and periarticular tenderness. The range of movement is decreased and there is crepitus on movement.

Investigations show normal haematology and biochemistry and inflammatory markers are not raised.

In this patient, the pharmacological intervention of first choice should be treatment with:

a)      Paracetemol

b)      Codeine phosphate

c)      Non Steroidal Anti Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs)

d)      Tramadol

e)      Glucosamine sulphate

Answer:

a)

The clinical features suggest the patient has osteoarthrosis. Paracetemol is the safest analgesics and is the recommended oral agent of first choice in osteoarthrosis.

Codeine is useful in combination with paracetemol but constipation and central nervous system disturbance may be a problem. NSAIDs may be more effective than paracetemol but they are associated with renal and gastrointestinal toxicity. Tramadol has more side effects. Glucosamine sulphate is a nutritional supplement. In trials it has been shown to cause modest reductions in pain and slows joint space narrowing in osteoarthrosis of the knee.

 

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